Pilgrims are an apt subject, but Dick Morris may not be the best expert on the subject: watch him explain how the migration of the 'Pilgrims' led to the War Between the States.
This video was posted at OD and the discussion follows.
First, Morris does not seem to understand that the terms 'Pilgrim' and 'Puritan' are not interchangeable. The distinctions are explained
here, but a brief answer is
here.
But if we are to paint with extremely broad brushes, or if the specifics are considered unimportant, then maybe Morris can get away with it. In any case, he is an Ellis Islander, so I don't expect him to appreciate the nuances or distinctions.
On the OD thread the distinction between Puritans and Yankees, too, is not drawn. Did I fall asleep, like Rip Van Winkle, and wake up in a world where the meanings of words have changed? In my childhood, the term 'Yankee' meant all Northerners, not just Anglo-Saxon Protestants of colonial ancestry. Hands up, who agrees with me? Or am I in error all these years?
The commenters also bring up the idea that the Puritans believed themselves to be 'the New Jews' because they read the Old Testament. To my knowledge, all Bible-believing Christians read and believe
both testaments. The Puritans may have believed they were 'spritual Israel' or the 'children of Abraham' but that is
straight out of the New Testament. All Christians traditionally believed that they were Abraham's heirs at least in a spiritual sense, though not necessarily in a genetic sense, as British Israel adherents believe.
And even if they believed they were spiritual Israel, that does not mean they considered themselves 'Jews', new or otherwise. I believe that the Puritans, whatever we might think of them, were Biblically well-versed, and knew that the word 'Jew' was never applied to Abraham or Moses, and does not even appear until rather late in the Bible. Surely they understood that the terms Israel and Jew are not one and the same in meaning, just as 'Puritan' and 'Pilgrim' are not. A couple of the OD commenters point this out, but I am not sure their point is taken.
The idea that the 'Pilgrims', as Morris has it, caused the War Between the States, is an oversimplified one, to put it mildly. Sometimes, in trying to be brief, we paint in broad brushes, but if we are trying to be precise and get at the truth, we need to be a little more careful.
But the Massachusetts colonists arrived later, and they actually started arriving in 1620, not 1640 as Morris says. As I have ancestors among both the Massachusetts colonists (mine arrived circa 1630) and the Jamestown colonists, I think I can walk a line between the two, though my allegiances are 100 percent with the South.
Morris seems to say that the two groups of colonists were almost two separate nations. This is a popular view these days, albeit very oversimplified. Some popular historians and writers on the South's side say that the difference was ethnic: the South is ''Celtic'', fiery and hotblooded, while the North is 'Anglo-Saxon'', cold and hard-hearted. This is stereotyping run rampant, though stereotypes often have a kernel of truth, in most cases.
Were the Northern and Southern colonies founded by two completely different peoples? It's often said (and I've said it, myself, speaking in broad terms) that the Puritan colonists were from East Anglia, mostly, while the Cavaliers in Virginia were from the South and West of England. Yet that is not a hard and fast rule; I have ancestors on each side who were from the North of England. There were in fact Puritans in all parts of England, as well as in Scotland (yes, Scotland
was very Calvinistic; how does that fit into the stereotype?). Morris states that the Cavaliers in Virginia were all English aristocrats, and a good many were, though not all. How do I know this? Not from reading unreliable history books written in recent years, but from years of genealogical research and reading documents of colonial Virginia.
Likewise the Massachusetts colonists represented a varied group; things are not as cut-and-dried as Morris would have it. They represented people from 'good families', landed gentry, as well as small farmers, merchants, and others, but they were generally chosen for good character, contrary to what some historians claim, that they were 'rejects' in their country of birth.
So the idea that the colonists in the two colonies were two separate nations is an oversimplification. The Puritans represented a sect in English Protestantism, but even they were not a monolithic group; there were differing
varieties of Puritanism, some more 'extreme' than others. But it's good to remind ourselves that in today's very secular and irreligious age, anybody who reads the Bible and holds to its teachings is a dangerous fanatic and 'extremist' to much of 21st century America, or the Western world generally.
But if we believe, as I do, that the English colonists who settled Massachusetts and Virginia respectively were essentially, still, one people, how did it happen that they came to diverge so much? Because I do believe that North and South did come to be two different peoples by the time of the War Between the States, certainly, though the difference is not all 'ethnic' as pro-Celtic Southrons believe. Somehow the two sides came to differ greatly; maybe conditions in each region led to an exaggeration of existing differences. Morris seems to say that the South, being settled by English nobility with a bias towards a rigid social hierarchy, was thus favorable to slavery and other such 'un-democratic' ideals.
I wonder how much the different development of the North is attributable to the influx of immigration from non-English speaking countries in the era before the War. We must remember that the influx began in the 1820s and continued for decades after the War. The Northeast, particularly, and later, the Midwest, began to receive millions of immigrants from countries far more dissimilar than the Puritans were dissimilar to the Cavaliers. This influence is too often ignored or minimized.
The South, on the other hand, received relatively little immigration in that time period. And ironically the influx of immigrants to the North played a big part in how the War turned out, as many immigrants fought for the Union.
And, oddly, even after the flow of immigrants began to ethnically cleanse the old Puritan colonial-stock descendants from the areas their ancestors settled and built, somehow they are credited/blamed for the extreme liberal politics of New England? Those old Puritans/Yankees must have had some powerful mojo, to still be dominating the Northeast and its politics long after they are moved on to the Midwest and Far West, and/or blended out of existence, by intermarrying with the Ellis Islanders.
And if their 'culture' is somehow now being carried on by those immigrant progeny -- how does that work? No, the extreme liberal politics owe at least as much to the Jewish 'Tikkun Olam' as to some purported Yankee Puritanism. Puritanism, like all forms of Calvinism, does not believe human beings are perfectible, or that society is capable of being made perfect. It was enlightenment ideals that first introduced those notions, and sadly, I can see how the non-believing descendants of the old Puritans began to swallow those utopian ideals whole, hence the decline of Christianity in general in our country which we see in its end stages now. If the old Puritan fathers could have seen the outcome of their endeavors, I wonder if they would have bothered. Maybe they'd have stayed in England, or gone
en masse to Holland, and the world today would look very different.
But don't let us become so embittered that we wish away our ancestors and their efforts; an alternative history might even have been worse. History is what it is; it's pointless to 'point fingers' at our predecessors.